CV-BC : ANCC (CV-BC) Cardiac Vascular Nursing Certification Exam

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ANCC (CV-BC) Cardiac-Vascular Nursing Certification
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Question: 696
Which of the following is a function of the respiratory system?
egulation of body temperature
xchange of gases between the air and blood etoxification of harmful substances
wer: C
anation: The exchange of gases between the air and blood is a functio espiratory system. The respiratory system is responsible for the intake en and the removal of carbon dioxide from the body. This exchange o occurs in the lungs, where oxygen from the inhaled air diffuses into dstream, and carbon dioxide produced by cellular metabolism is expel the body. The production of digestive enzymes is primarily carried o igestive system, regulation of body temperature is mainly controlled b moregulatory system, and detoxification of harmful substances is prim
ormed by the liver and kidneys.
Production of digestive enzymes
R
E
D
Ans
Expl n of
the r of
oxyg f
gases the
bloo led
from ut by
the d y the
ther arily
perf
Question: 697
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of infective endocarditis?
1. Osler's nodes
2. Reed-Sternberg cells
3. Heberden's nodes
4. Charcot-Leyden crystals Answer: A
els and are considered one of the major criteria in the diagnosis of infe carditis. Reed-Sternberg cells are associated with Hodgkin's lymphom erden's nodes are seen in osteoarthritis, and Charcot-Leyden crystals a d to conditions such as asthma and parasitic infections.
stion: 698
tient with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol. The nurse should m atient for which of the following potential adverse effects of this cation?
ypercalcemia ypokalemia ypernatremia radycardia
Explanation: Osler's nodes are a characteristic clinical feature of infective endocarditis, which is an infection of the endocardium (inner lining) of the heart. Osler's nodes are tender, subcutaneous nodules typically found on the fingers or toes. They are caused by immune complex deposition in the blood vess ctive
endo a,
Heb re
linke
Que
A pa onitor
the p medi
1. H
2. H
3. H
4. B
Answer: D
Explanation: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate). The nurse should monitor the patient's heart rate regularly while on metoprolol therapy and report any significant changes to the healthcare provider.
Question: 699
A patient is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization procedure. The nurse explains to the patient that the purpose of the procedure is:
evaluate the pumping function of the heart measure the oxygen saturation in the blood visualize the coronary arteries and blood flow
wer: D
anation: The purpose of a cardiac catheterization procedure is to visua oronary arteries and blood flow. During a cardiac catheterization, a eter is inserted into a bloodvessel and advanced to the heart. Contrast d ted, allowing visualization of the coronary arteries and identification o lockages or narrowing. Electrical conduction of the heart is assessed ugh an electrocardiogram (ECG). The pumping function of the heart c uated through an echocardiogram or a nuclear stress test. Oxygen satur
blood can be measured through pulse oximetry or arterial blood gas ysis.
To assess the electrical conduction of the heart
To
To
To
Ans
Expl lize
the c
cath ye is
injec f
any b
thro an be
eval ation
in the anal
Question: 700
A patient with unstable angina is prescribed dual antiplatelet therapy. Which of the following medication combinations is commonly used for dual antiplatelet therapy?
1. Aspirin and clopidogrel
2. Warfarin and heparin
3. Enoxaparin and ticagrelor
4. Dabigatran and prasugrel Answer: A
clopidogrel blocks the P2Y12 ADP receptor on platelets, further red let activation and aggregation. Dual antiplatelet therapy is often used ce the risk of cardiovascular events in patients with acute coronary romes.
stion: 701
ch of the following is an example of a primary immunodeficiency diso heumatoid arthritis
sthma IV/AIDS
ommon variable immunodeficiency wer: D
Explanation: Aspirin and clopidogrel are commonly used for dual antiplatelet therapy in patients with unstable angina. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, while ucing
plate to
redu synd
Que
Whi rder?
1. R
2. A
3. H
4. C
Ans
Explanation: Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is an example of a primary immunodeficiency disorder. CVID is a group of disorders characterized by low levels of functional antibodies, leading to an increased susceptibility to infections. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease, not a primary immunodeficiency disorder. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and constriction. HIV/AIDS is an acquired immunodeficiency syndrome caused by the human
Question: 702
understands that the administration of which medication is considere dard treatment for ADHF?
igoxin opamine urosemide arfarin
wer: C
anation: Furosemide is considered a standard treatment for acute mpensated heart failure (ADHF). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that h ve excess fluid from the body and alleviate symptoms of fluid overlo HF. Digoxin is used in the management of heart failure but is not
fically indicated for ADHF. Dopamine is a vasopressor used in certai of low blood pressure or cardiac output but is not a standard treatme HF. Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots and is not
fic to ADHF treatment.
A patient is admitted with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF). The nurse d a
stan
1. D
2. D
3. F
4. W
Ans Expl
deco elps
remo ad in
AD
speci n
cases nt for
AD
speci
Question: 703
A patient with a known peanut allergy accidentally ingests peanuts and develops symptoms of an allergic reaction. Which of the following medications
1. Epinephrine
2. Diphenhydramine
3. Prednisone
anation: The correct answer is A) Epinephrine. Epinephrine is the mo opriate initial treatment for an anaphylactic reaction, which is a severe ntially life-threatening allergic reaction. Epinephrine acts rapidly to re ymptoms of anaphylaxis by constricting blood vessels, opening airwa educing immune system response. Options B (diphenhydramine), C dnisone), and D (albuterol) may have a role in managing certain aspec lergic reaction, but they are not the first-line treatment and should not ce epinephrine.
stion: 704
ch of the following is a risk factor for the development of deep vein mbosis (DVT)?
egular physical exercise
Albuterol Answer: A
Expl st
appr and
pote verse
the s ys,
and r
(pre ts of
an al repla
Que
Whi thro
1. R
2. Smoking cessation
3. Obesity
4. Low-dose aspirin use Answer: C
Explanation: Obesity is a risk factor for the development of deep vein
stion: 705
urse is caring for a patient with heart failure who is prescribed emide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse mo ly during furosemide therapy?
erum sodium levels erum potassium levels erum calcium levels erum creatinine levels
wer: B
anation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (lo ssium levels). The nurse should closely monitor the patient's serum ssium levels while on furosemide therapy.
thrombosis (DVT). Obesity contributes to venous stasis (slow blood flow) and an increased risk of blood clot formation in the deep veins, particularly in the lower extremities. Regular physical exercise actually reduces the risk of DVT by promoting blood flow. Smoking cessation is beneficial for overall health but does not directly impact DVT risk. Low-dose aspirin use is primarily associated with reducing the risk of arterial thrombosis (clot formation in arteries) rather than DVT.
Que
The n
furos nitor
close
1. S
2. S
3. S
4. S
Ans
Expl w
pota pota
Question: 706
A patient with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which of the following is an important nursing consideration
when administering ACE inhibitors?
1. Monitoring serum potassium levels
2. Administering the medication with meals
3. Ensuring adequate fluid intake
anation: An important nursing consideration when administering ACE itors is monitoring serum potassium levels. ACE inhibitors can cause ssium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. Regular monitoring of potas helps prevent complications related to electrolyte imbalances. ACE itors are commonly administered on an empty stomach, rather than w
s. Ensuring adequate fluid intake is important for patients taking diure not specific to ACE inhibitors. Monitoring blood glucose levels is m ant to other medication classes, such as certain antihypertensive agent cations for diabetes management.
stion: 707
tient presents with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF). Which ollowing signs or symptoms is most indicative of fluid overload?
Monitoring blood glucose levels Answer: A
Expl inhib
pota sium
levels
inhib ith
meal tics
but is ore
relev s or
medi
Que
A pa of
the f
1. Peripheral edema
2. Hypotension
3. Bradycardia
4. Dry mucous membranes Answer: A
stion: 708
urse is caring for a patient with a suspected stroke. Which of the wing diagnostic tests is most commonly used to confirm the diagnosis cute ischemic stroke?
agnetic resonance imaging (MRI) omputed tomography (CT) scan lectroencephalogram (EEG) umbar puncture
wer: B
anation: A computed tomography (CT) scan is the most commonly us nostic test to confirm the diagnosis of an acute ischemic stroke.
Explanation: Peripheral edema is the sign or symptom most indicative of fluid overload in a patient with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF). Fluid overload occurs when there is an excessive accumulation of fluid in the body, leading to edema formation. Hypotension and bradycardia may be present in some cases of ADHF, but they are not specific to fluid overload. Dry mucous membranes are more commonly associated with dehydration rather than fluid overload.
Que
The n
follo of
an a
1. M
2. C
3. E
4. L
Ans
Expl ed
diag

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