iPass4sure.netCertification Practice Test | PDF Questions | Actual Questions | Test Engine | Pass4Sure
NPTE : National Physical Therapy Examination 2025
Medical NPTE Questions & Answers
Full Version: 651 Q&A
NPTE Dumps NPTE Braindumps
NPTE Real Questions NPTE Practice Test NPTE Actual Questions
killexams.com
Category: Medical & Healthcare
NPTE
National Physical Therapy Examination 2025
https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/NPTE
Question: 626
A 12-year-old boy with Legg-Calvé-Perthes' disease of the right hip is being evaluated for surgical treatment. Which of the following radiographic findings would indicate the need for a varus osteotomy?
ateral extrusion of the femoral head ragmentation of the femoral head ecreased joint space width
ncreased joint space width wer: A
anation: Lateral extrusion of the femoral head is a radiographic findin ould indicate the need for a varus osteotomy in the surgical manage egg-Calvé-Perthes' disease. Varus osteotomy involves rotating the fem and head into a more varus position, which helps to recontain the fe within the acetabulum and prevent further deformity. Fragmentation emoral head, decreased joint space width, and increased joint space w ot necessarily indications for a varus osteotomy, as they can occur du atural disease progression without the need for this specific surgical
edure.
L F D I Ans Expl g that w ment of L oral neck moral head of the f idth are n ring the n proc A 52-year-old patient with chronic low back pain secondary to lumbar disc herniation presents to the physical therapy clinic. The patient reports that the pain is worse with prolonged sitting or standing. Which of the following TENS parameter settings would be MOST appropriate for this patient's condition? High-frequency, low-intensity TENS Low-frequency, high-intensity TENS Burst-mode TENS anation: Low-frequency, high-intensity TENS is the most appropriate meter for chronic low back pain secondary to lumbar disc herniation. T f TENS stimulates the small unmyelinated C-fibers and can effectiv ce pain associated with musculoskeletal conditions, such as disc herni -frequency, low-intensity TENS is more effective for acute pain, whil -mode TENS and acupuncture-like TENS are primarily used for opathic pain conditions. -year-old man with a history of knee osteoarthritis presents with sudd pain and swelling over the medial aspect of his knee. He reports that ptoms began after a fall while walking. On physical examination, ther erness to palpation over the pes anserine bursa. Which of the followin OST likely underlying cause of this patient's condition? steoarthritis Expl para his type o ely redu ation. High e burst neur A 62 en- onset the sym e is tend g is the M O Rheumatoid arthritis Trauma Pes anserine bursitis Answer: C Explanation: -year-old patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary dise PD) presents with progressive shortness of breath, fatigue, and periphe ma. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.30, PaCO2 of 55 mm aO2 of 60 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosi cute respiratory acidosis hronic respiratory acidosis cute respiratory alkalosis hronic respiratory alkalosis wer: B anation: The combination of a low pH, elevated PaCO2, and reduced dicative of chronic respiratory acidosis, which is commonly seen in nts with COPD. Acute respiratory acidosis would have a higher pH, a or chronic respiratory alkalosis would have a lower PaCO2. A 65 ase (CO ral ede Hg, and P s? A C A C Ans Expl PaO2 is in patie nd acute A patient with a history of total knee arthroplasty (TKA) presents with decreased quadriceps strength and difficulty performing functional activities. Electrical stimulation of the quadriceps muscle. Passive range of motion (PROM) exercises. Strengthening exercises using resistance bands. anation: The MOST appropriate intervention to address the decreased riceps strength and difficulty performing functional activities in a pati a history of total knee arthroplasty (TKA) is strengthening exercises u tance bands. Restoring quadriceps strength is a critical component of bilitation following TKA. tient with severe diarrhea presents with the following arterial blood g es: .58 rbonate (HCO3-): 40 mEq/L O2: 50 mmHg 2: 92 mmHg Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) for pain relief. Answer: C Expl quad ent with sing resis reha A pa as valu pH: 7 Bica PaC PaO FiO2: 0.21 Which of the following best describes the patient's acid-base status? Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic acidosis Answer: D -year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with ually worsening pain and swelling over the medial aspect of her knee. rts that the symptoms are worse with activity and are accompanied by ness. On physical examination, there is tenderness to palpation over th rine bursa. Which of the following is the MOST likely underlying cau atient's condition? steoarthritis heumatoid arthritis rauma es anserine bursitis wer: B A 48 grad She repo stiff e pes anse se of this p O R T P Ans Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis is the MOST likely underlying cause in this patient presentation. The patient's history of rheumatoid arthritis, a chronic autoimmune condition, increases her risk of developing bursitis, including pes anserine bursitis. The gradual worsening of symptoms with activity and accompanying stiffness are characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis-related joint inflammation. While the localized tenderness over the pes anserine bursa on physical examination suggests the presence of pes anserine bursitis, this is likely a manifestation of the underlying rheumatoid arthritis in this case. ure is 150/95 mmHg. Which of the following is the MOST likely cau ypertension? olume overload enin-angiotensin-aldosterone system activation ympathetic nervous system overactivity ndothelial dysfunction and vascular stiffness wer: B anation: Chronic kidney disease is often associated with activation of -angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to sodium and fluid retentio s vasoconstriction, which can result in hypertension. Volume overlo pathetic overactivity, and endothelial dysfunction are also contributing rs, but the primary mechanism in chronic kidney disease is the egulation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. this h V R S E Ans Expl the renin n as well a ad, sym facto dysr A 45-year-old computer programmer presents with gradual-onset numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th digits of her right hand. On examination, she has decreased sensation to light touch in the ulnar nerve distribution and weakness with abduction of the 5th digit. Tinel's sign is positive over the pisiform bone. The MOST likely cause of the patient's symptoms is: Compression of the ulnar nerve at Guyon's canal Compression of the median nerve at the carpal tunnel Entrapment of the radial nerve in the spiral groove Entrapment of the posterior interosseous nerve Answer: A nd 5th digits, along with ulnar nerve-specific sensory and motor defic aracteristic of ulnar nerve entrapment. The positive Tinel's sign over t orm bone, which is a key landmark for Guyon's canal, indicates that t ST likely cause is compression of the ulnar nerve as it passes through osseous tunnel at the wrist. Carpal tunnel syndrome would affect the an nerve distribution, radial nerve entrapment would cause more prox ptoms, and posterior interosseous nerve entrapment would not produce rved ulnar nerve deficits. year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy presents to physical py with complaints of increased difficulty with ambulation and freque During the assessment, the physical therapist observes that the child h ficant tightness in the hip flexor and hamstring muscle groups, which ing his range of motion and contributing to a crouched gait pattern. T Explanation: The patient's presentation of isolated numbness and tingling in the 4th a its, is ch he pisif he MO this fibro- medi imal sym the obse A 9- thera nt falls. as signi is limit he MOST appropriate initial intervention for this patient is: Referring the patient to an orthopedic surgeon for consideration of multilevel orthopedic surgery to address the muscle contractures and improve gait. Initiating a course of serial casting to gradually increase range of motion in the hip and knee joints. Recommending the use of knee-ankle-foot orthoses (KAFOs) to provide stability and support during ambulation. Implementing a physical therapy plan focused on strengthening the lower extremity musculature and stretching the tight muscle groups. Answer: D pastic diplegic cerebral palsy and a crouched gait pattern is to imple ysical therapy plan focused on strengthening the lower extremity culature and stretching the tight muscle groups. astic diplegic cerebral palsy, the lower extremities are typically more ted than the upper extremities, and the muscle tightness in the hip fle amstrings can contribute to a crouched gait pattern. A targeted physi py program that addresses these muscle imbalances through a combin rengthening and stretching exercises can help improve the child's rang on, joint positioning, and overall gait mechanics. rring the patient to an orthopedic surgeon for multilevel orthopedic su on A) may be a consideration, but it should not be the initial intervent ore conservative management should be attempted first. ating a course of serial casting (option B) can be an effective interventi should be considered after the initial strengthening and stretching ram has been implemented, as it may be more appropriate for more se Explanation: The most appropriate initial intervention for the 9-year-old child with s ment a ph mus In sp affec xors and h cal thera ation of st e of moti Refe rgery (opti ion, as m Initi on, but it prog vere or resistant muscle contractures. Recommending the use of knee-ankle-foot orthoses (KAFOs) (option C) can be a valuable adjunct to the physical therapy program, but it should not be the primary intervention, as it does not address the underlying muscle imbalances and contractures. ift-off test elly-press test xternal rotation lag sign mpty can test wer: C anation: The external rotation lag sign is a specific test used to assess rity of the teres minor muscle. This test evaluates the patient's ability ely maintain their shoulder in external rotation against gravity, which arily controlled by the teres minor. The other tests listed assess differe lder muscles and functions. -year-old woman presents with weakness of wrist and finger flexion, s decreased sensation in the distribution of the median nerve. Where L B E E Ans Expl the integ to activ is prim nt shou A 40 as well a is the MOST likely site of median nerve entrapment? Pronator teres Carpal tunnel Anterior interosseous nerve Lacertus fibrosus Answer: B Explanation: The patient's symptoms of median nerve distribution weakness and sensory deficits are most consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome, where the median nerve becomes entrapped as it passes through the carpal tunnel at the wrist. This is the most common site of median nerve entrapment. -year-old patient is 2 weeks post-op from a total hip arthroplasty usin erolateral surgical approach. During a physical therapy session, the pist instructs the patient to perform active hip flexion, medial rotation ction exercises. What is the primary concern with this intervention at of recovery? he movements may lead to excessive stress on the hip abductor muscl he movements could increase the risk of postoperative hip dislocation. he movements may cause excessive pain and inflammation in the hip he movements may delay the healing process of the posterior hip caps wer: B anation: The posterolateral surgical approach for total hip arthroplasty ves detachment and reattachment of the posterior hip capsule and sho nal rotator muscles. This makes the hip joint particularly vulnerable t Que A 62 g a post thera , and addu this stage T es. T T joint. T ule. Ans Expl invol rt exter o dislocation in the early postoperative period, especially with the combination of hip flexion, medial rotation, and adduction. This specific movement pattern places the prosthetic femoral head in a precarious position relative to the acetabular component, significantly increasing the risk of dislocation. Avoiding these movements is crucial during the initial 2-4 weeks of recovery to allow the posterior soft tissues to heal and regain stability around the new hip joint. A 55-year-old patient with heart failure is participating in a cardiac rehabilitation program. During a moderate intensity exercise session, the patient's oxygen uptake efficiency slope (OUES) is measured and found to be decreased compared to normative values. This OUES response is: ormal mproved lunted oncerning wer: C anation: The oxygen uptake efficiency slope (OUES) is a measure of orespiratory fitness, and in patients with heart failure, it is typically ed compared to healthy individuals. A decreased OUES during mode sity exercise indicates the patient's ability to efficiently utilize oxygen ired, a hallmark of the cardiovascular and respiratory limitations seen failure. This blunted OUES response is concerning and may warrant er evaluation and adjustments to the exercise prescription to optimize nt's exercise capacity. N I B C Ans Expl cardi blunt rate inten is impa in heart furth the patie A 9-year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy presents to physical therapy with complaints of decreased mobility and frequent falls. During the evaluation, the physical therapist observes that the child has significant tightness in the hamstring and gastrocnemius muscle groups, leading to a crouched gait pattern. The MOST appropriate intervention to address the child's primary impairment is: Referring the child to an orthopedic surgeon for consideration of lower extremity tendon lengthening or muscle-tendon unit lengthening procedures. ecommending the use of ankle-foot orthoses (AFOs) to provide stabili upport during ambulation. nitiating a course of serial casting to gradually increase range of motio nkle and knee joints. wer: B anation: The most appropriate intervention to address the primary irment of the 9-year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy and ched gait pattern is to implement a physical therapy plan focused on gthening the quadriceps and hip extensor muscle groups, as well as ching the tight muscle groups. astic diplegic cerebral palsy, the lower extremities are typically more ted, and the tightness in the hamstring and gastrocnemius muscle gro ontribute to a crouched gait pattern. By focusing on strengthening the gonist muscle groups, such as the quadriceps and hip extensors, and ementing a targeted stretching program for the tight muscle groups, th R ty and s I n in the a Ans Expl impa a crou stren stret In sp affec ups can c anta impl e physical therapist can help address the underlying muscle imbalances and improve the child's gait mechanics. Referring the child to an orthopedic surgeon for lower extremity tendon lengthening or muscle-tendon unit lengthening procedures (option A) may be a consideration, but it should not be the initial intervention, as more conservative management should be attempted first. Recommending the use of ankle-foot orthoses (AFOs) (option C) can be a valuable adjunct to the physical therapy program, but it should not be the primary intervention, as it does not directly address the underlying muscle imbalances. ram has been implemented, as it may be more appropriate for more se sistant muscle contractures. -year-old patient presents with a new-onset confusion and disorientati atient's medical history is significant for well-controlled type 2 diabe tus. The most likely contributing factor to the patient's disorientation yperglycemia ypoglycemia iabetic ketoacidosis erebrovascular accident wer: B anation: Hypoglycemia is the most likely contributing factor to the prog vere or re A 62 on. The p tes melli is: H H D C Ans Expl patient's disorientation in this case. Hypoglycemia can cause neurological symptoms, including confusion and disorientation, particularly in patients with diabetes. Hyperglycemia and diabetic ketoacidosis are more likely to cause gradual onset of altered mental status, not sudden-onset disorientation. A cerebrovascular accident would be less likely in a patient with well-controlled diabetes. A 75-year-old patient with chronic kidney disease is brought to the emergency department with confusion, lethargy, and Kussmaul breathing. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals the following values: ch of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's acid-base der? iabetic ketoacidosis hronic respiratory acidosis cute renal failure hronic metabolic acidosis wer: D anation: The patient's arterial blood gas values (pH 7.14, PaCO2 18 Hg, HCO3- 6 mmol/L) indicate the presence of a severe metabolic aci ow HCO3- concentration and low pH are characteristic of metabolic osis, while the low PaCO2 represents respiratory compensation. Chron ey disease is a common cause of chronic metabolic acidosis due to the ired ability of the kidneys to excrete acid and retain bicarbonate. pH 7.14, PaCO2 18 mmHg, HCO3- 6 mmol/L. Whi disor D C A C Ans Expl mm dosis. The l acid ic kidn impa A 27-year-old male presents to the clinic 1 week after sustaining a knee injury while playing basketball. He reports significant pain, swelling, and decreased range of motion. When performing the Lachman's test, you note increased anterior tibial translation with a "soft endpoint" compared to the uninjured side. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management? Immobilize the knee in a brace and refer for physical therapy Obtain radiographs to rule out a fracture Recommend immediate arthroscopic ACL reconstruction Initiate a course of oral corticosteroids anation: The appropriate next step in management for this patient wit ected complete ACL tear based on the positive Lachman's test finding mmobilize the knee in a brace and refer the patient for physical therapy e the Lachman's test suggests a complete ACL tear, further diagnostic ing such as MRI is needed to confirm the diagnosis and assess for ciated injuries. Immediate surgical referral or corticosteroid use would ature without confirmed MRI findings. Radiographs are indicated to r fracture, but are not the primary next step. year-old girl with spastic quadriplegic cerebral palsy presents to physi py for an initial evaluation. The girl's parents report that she has diffic ross motor skills, such as walking and running, and experiences freq During the evaluation, the physical therapist observes that the girl ha ficant muscle spasticity in all four limbs, with a predominance in the l Expl h a susp s is to i . Whil imag asso be prem ule out a A 7- cal thera ulty with g uent falls. s signi ower extremities. The most appropriate intervention for this patient is: Prescribing a home exercise program focused on strengthening the upper extremities to improve her ability to push herself in a manual wheelchair. Recommending the use of ankle-foot orthoses (AFOs) to improve her gait and reduce the risk of falls. Referring the patient to an occupational therapist for evaluation and recommendations on assistive technology to enhance her independence in daily living activities. Initiating a course of constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT) to improve upper extremity function and motor control. Answer: B ic quadriplegic cerebral palsy is to recommend the use of ankle-foot oses (AFOs) to improve her gait and reduce the risk of falls. astic quadriplegic cerebral palsy, the predominant spasticity is typical ower extremities, which can lead to poor gait mechanics and an increa f falls. AFOs can help improve the alignment and function of the ank oot, providing support and stability during ambulation. This can help nt walk more safely and reduce the frequency of falls, which is a ficant concern reported by the parents. cribing a home exercise program focused on strengthening the upper mities (option A) may not be the most appropriate initial intervention, rimary issue is the impaired gait and increased fall risk due to the low mity spasticity. rring the patient to an occupational therapist for assistive technology uation (option C) can be a valuable complementary intervention, but it ld not be the primary focus at this stage, as the physical therapist shou Explanation: The most appropriate intervention for the 7-year-old girl with spast orth In sp ly in the l sed risk o le and f the patie signi Pres extre as the p er extre Refe eval shou ld first address the immediate mobility and safety concerns. Initiating constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT) (option D) is not the most appropriate intervention in this case, as CIMT is typically used to improve upper extremity function and motor control, which are not the primary concerns reported by the parents. A 44-year-old male patient presents with mid-thoracic spine pain and limited rotation. Examination reveals hypomobility with left rotation at the T8-T9 spinal segment. Which of the following techniques would be most appropriate to address the hypomobility? rone mid-thoracic spine segmental rotation mobilization eated mid-thoracic spine Maitland mobilization in side-bending upine mid-thoracic spine Mulligan sustained natural apophyseal glide AG) idelying mid-thoracic spine high-velocity low-amplitude thrust wer: A anation: The hypomobility with left rotation at the T8-T9 spinal segm ates a specific mobility deficit in the rotational plane. A prone mid- cic spine segmental rotation mobilization would be the most appropri nique to address this hypomobility. This technique allows for targeted lization of the restricted rotational motion at the specific spinal segm tient presents with a complete ACL tear confirmed by magnetic reson
Question: 627
stion: 628
Que
stion: 629
Que
Question: 630
stion: 631
Que
stion: 632
Que
Question: 633
Question: 634
stion: 635
Que
Question: 636
stion: 637
Que
stion: 638
Question: 639
Question: 640
stion: 641
Que
Question: 642
Question: 643
stion: 644
Que
Question: 645
stion: 646
User: Onya*****
Studying for the NPTE exam, preparing for the pass, and taking the test seemed overwhelming, but Killexams.com came to my rescue. Their excellent materials had provided every question that appeared on the NPTE exam, making the experience pressure-free and enjoyable. I am very satisfied with the Killexams.com experience, and I am confident I will use this website for all future NPTE certification exams.
User: Oscar*****
Becoming NPTE certified was my goal, and passing the NPTE exam was crucial. I failed the exam twice, but fortunately, my cousin introduced me to the killexams.com material. The Questions and Answers material inspired me, and I scored 89%. The material was well-formatted and covered essential requirements. I am confident that this material is the perfect exam preparation resource.
User: Yasha*****
I have passed my NPTE exam and am thrilled that the questions were valid and accurate. I was guaranteed a 99% pass rate and cashback guarantee, but I managed to score even higher. These are the coolest facts.
User: John*****
If you are looking for a valid NPTE practice test to prepare for the exam, look no further than Killexams.com. Their superb exam simulator provided me with high-quality study materials, guiding me through every element of the exam and supplying the best questions and answers I have ever seen. The test courses were also very helpful.
User: Tassy*****
I used Killexams.com Medical test guidance material to prepare for the NPTE exam, and it was comprehensive but useful in passing the exam.
Features of iPass4sure NPTE Exam
Premium PDF with 651 Q&A
Get Full VersionAll Medical Exams
Medical ExamsCertification and Entry Test Exams
Complete exam list